One of the reasons I love Google + (besides the fact that it has brought so many readers to this blog), is the fact that it's more open than facebook, you post something, and you don't know who will respond. It encourages more discussion than facebook does. Google + is almost the effect of what would happen if you combined a blog site with Twitter. One great example of this is a discussion that started on the Atheist ® page. To give some context, in the posts before this, John, the creator of the page had been posting verses that should the sexism of the Bible, (read post with comments here ). The creator of the page says that this all started because he brought up Paul's statement in I Timothy 2:11: "A woman should learn in quietness and full submission."
OK, Brad the verse that Brad quotes seems to support his view that Paul felt that all are equal, regardless of gender, ethnicity, etc. So the Bible isn't sexist, then?
Wait..... it actually is, read these verses for yourself:
1 Corinthians 14:33-35
"...As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church."
“Wives, submit to your husbands as to the Lord. For the husband is the head of the wife as Christ is the head of the church...."
First, let's address his comment about all being equal. Compare his Galatians 3:23-28 quote with the 2 verses above. Clearly, women are not consider as equals in the rest of the New Testament (and Galatians, I Corinthians, and Ephesians were all written by Paul, so not only is the Bible contradictory, but Paul even contradicts himself!) How in one verse can the Bible say all are equal, when the New Testament/Paul seems to believe that women are not equal to men? I'm just talking about the New Testament, the Bible's view of women in the Old Testament is even worse.
In the Old Testmant days, slavery was allowed, but male slaves were allowed to be freed at the end of 7 years, but not the women....
"When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again."
Deuteronomy 22:28-29 (NIV):
If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl’s father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.
So not only could a woman be forced to marry her rapist, but the man must pay for her as if he is buying livestock? This principle is also present in Islam, and is still practiced to this day in the Middle East. It comes from the ancient ideal that women are property, and their worth is only in their virginity. The rapist was forced to marry her, and pay a price to her father (and also not allowed to divorce her), because since he raped her, she is now "damaged goods", and can't be married off to anyone else. Disgusting that the Bible viewed women this way.
So we have here a Christian quoting one verse that supports equality, and a host of other verses (there's plenty more), that contradict that very verse, some even written by the same man who wrote the 1st.
Let's address his comment that Paul's commands regarding women and their conduct in churches, not being allowed to speak, teach, and must have their heads covered when in church or in prayer (I Corinthians 11:4-7). It is true that it was custom in ancient Greek culture (the churches he wrote to were in cities that were highly influenced by Greek culture and most residents worshiped Greek gods), that it was considered disrespectful and irreverent for a woman to speak in a place of worship or enter without her head covered.
However, if god was for the equality of women, why would he bow down to the whims and standards of a culture, especially when that cultural custom was sexist (and supposedly according to response of the Christian above, god believes in equality for everyone)? Why wouldn't he want his followers to be a positive example to the people around them that women should be equals? Better yet, if he is 'almighty god", then why wouldn't he use his power to change the minds of the people around them? Why would he support equality in one biblical passage (I'm looking at this from the fundamentalist's point of view that the entire bible was inspired by god), but have the rest of the bible oppose it?
The argument that the bible supports equality doesn't hold up at all....